Have you ever heard of someone who committed a sin and got instructed to “go and sin no more”?
There is a famous story in the Bible, historically known as the Pericope Adulterae. In the story, Jesus made the statement, "go and sin no more," and over time, I have heard people give different meanings to it.
A surprising interpretation of the statement is a claim to repent and “sin no more.” However, in this message, we will look at the statement together, and I am hopeful that we will understand what Jesus meant.
Which Bible Verse Says “Go and Sin No More”? (John 8)
You might be wondering: how many times does the Bible actually say the full phrase "go and sin no more"? The answer is simply one. That is in John 8:11.
However, regarding the phrase "sin no more," there are two Bible verses where it appears. These are John 5:14 and John 8:11. They are similar, but with a clear distinction.
- John 5:14 KJV, “Afterward Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said unto him, Behold, thou art made whole: sin no more, lest a worse thing come unto thee.”
- John 8:11 KJV, “She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.”
These were two different events in John's account, and the distinction is that the first gave a reason for the phrase "sin no more," while the second only ended at "go and sin no more." Why is that?
To further decipher the difference, I think it is better to look at each event one at a time. We will start with the second one, which is our main focus.
The Meaning of "Go and Sin No More" (John 8)
Previously, we looked at the account of Jesus and the woman who was caught in the sin of adultery. The focus was on the statement Jesus made: “Let he who is without sin cast the first stone at her.”
Let’s look at the account again.
The event took place early in the morning at the temple. Jesus was teaching the people when the scribes and Pharisees brought a woman to Him. She had been caught in the very act of adultery.
They set her in the midst of the crowd and cited the Law of Moses which commanded stoning for such an act. Then they asked Him what He would say about it.
Jesus initially ignored them and wrote on the ground. But when they continued to ask, He stood up and said the famous words:
“He who is without sin among you, let him throw a stone at her first.” (v.7)
Convicted by their conscience, the accusers left one by one until Jesus was left alone with the woman. He asked if anyone remained to condemn her. When she said no, He replied:
“Neither do I condemn you; go and sin no more.”
To delve further into the meaning of this phrase according to the passage, I have summarized the story into three points:
- A woman who sinned and was liable to stoning according to the Law of Moses was brought to Jesus to tempt Him.
- After the accusers insisted on hearing Him speak, He made a statement that challenged their conscience, and they left the woman with Him.
- After inquiring about her accusers, He told the woman that He did not condemn her, but that she should go and sin no more.
The "Go" vs. The "Sin No More"
The first part of understanding the phrase is the word 'Go'. It occurred to me that some people interpret it as 'repent' and sin no more. But was that what Jesus meant? I beg to differ.
The word "Go" commonly means to walk or move away. It is synonymous with 'depart.'
Jesus telling the woman to "go" was Him giving her permission to leave rather than commanding her to repent immediately. Remember, before telling her to go, He said, "I do not condemn you."
Having permitted her to walk away, He added, "sin no more." I think this is where the bone of contention lies.
I can imagine someone asking, “Yes, but what did Jesus mean when He said that?” I advise the best way to approach the statement is in context.
The phrase "sin no more" can be taken as a command, advice, or a suggestion. I believe a command fits perfectly because there were no additions or conditions attached. However, I would still agree with anyone who says Jesus advised the woman to sin no more.
A Modern Analogy
So what did He mean? Let's use an analogy. Assume a young man stole from a brother. The brother caught him and took him to an elder, reporting that the young man sinned and was worthy of punishment.
After a while, the elder said things to the brother that made him leave the young man alone. The elder then turned to the young man and said, "Go and sin no more." The young man left, and no reports of him stealing were brought up again.
The question is: What was the implication for the young man? Or, what did "sin no more" mean to the woman caught in adultery?
It would be wrong if Jesus were to encourage any form of wrongdoing. However, generalizing the statement "sin no more" can undermine the specific issue in the passage.
The significant sin in that passage was adultery. Therefore, "sin no more," if taken contextually for the woman, would mean "do not commit adultery again," just as the same statement would mean "do not steal again" for the young man in our analogy.
Can we generalize the statement to mean "do not do anything wrong again"? Yes, of course. But the point is that the statement is best explained in context because the specific sin had already been defined.
Sin No More, Lest A Worse Thing Come Unto Thee (John 5)
“After this there was a feast of the Jews; and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.
Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.
In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water.
For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.
And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.
When Jesus saw him lie, and knew that he had been now a long time in that case, he saith unto him, Wilt thou be made whole?
The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me.
Jesus saith unto him, Rise, take up thy bed, and walk.
And immediately the man was made whole, and took up his bed, and walked: and on the same day was the sabbath.
The Jews therefore said unto him that was cured, It is the sabbath day: it is not lawful for thee to carry thy bed.
He answered them, He that made me whole, the same said unto me, Take up thy bed, and walk.
Then asked they him, What man is that which said unto thee, Take up thy bed, and walk?
And he that was healed wist not who it was: for Jesus had conveyed himself away, a multitude being in that place.
Afterward Jesus findeth him in the temple, and said unto him, Behold, thou art made whole: sin no more, lest a worse thing come unto thee.” — John 5:1–14 KJV.
As much as we looked at the man at the pool of Bethesda in a separate article, I want to point out a few takeaways from the above event.
- The man in the story had a disease that made him helpless for thirty-eight years.
- Jesus was passing by Bethesda and saw the man. Then He offered to help him.
- The offering to help him came in the form of a question that led to his being made whole. In simple English, the question goes this way: Do you want to be made whole? The man began narrating how helpless he was, but Jesus told him to rise, take his bed, and walk.
What happened afterward was something quite common in the Gospels. Instead of rejoicing, the Jewish leaders confronted the man for carrying his bed on the Sabbath. They interrogated him about who healed him, similar to how they questioned the man who was born blind, the one who famously said, “I was blind, but now I see.”
Fast forward to where Jesus met the man again. He said to him, “See, you have been made well. Sin no more, lest a worse thing comes upon you.”
While Jesus makes it clear elsewhere (John 9) that not all sickness is caused by sin, in this specific instance, His warning suggests a direct link between this man's past choices and his condition.
To get a better picture of his situation, let us look at an analogy. Imagine someone involved in an immoral act who contracted an STI that caused him pain and rendered him helpless. It could have been a one-time act or even a lifestyle. Sadly, he had no one to help him.
But now, a doctor showed up after a long time, offered him a solution to the infection, and told him not to return to the lifestyle or act that got him into that condition in the first place.
Jesus' statement in this case can be taken as both a warning and advice, but the best person to understand the exact thing He was pointing to would be the man He spoke with.
However, from the passage, we can see Jesus advising the man not to return to his previous sinful lifestyle and warning him about the possibility of a worse thing (such as another infirmity or even death) coming upon him if he were to go back.
Understanding “Sin No More” In Both Cases
In the first event we looked at, some people took the woman to Jesus, but in the second one, Jesus went to the man. Later, He found him in the temple and spoke to him.
You can see the reason for Jesus saying, 'Go' before “sin no more” in the woman's case and why He did not have to say the same in the other.
The point is that there was a sin problem in both cases and the “sin no more” was instructive to the people that Jesus spoke to.
When you read both stories, did the question of whether or not the woman and the man ever had faith in Christ come to mind? Think about that for a moment.
On second thought, we did not see Jesus preach the gospel to any of them, neither did He threaten them with eternal damnation, as is common in some modern interpretations of these passages.
Instead, Jesus presented them with repentance from immorality to morality for their own good in this world. If you did not notice that, I implore you to read it again.
Just like anyone can choose to interpret any text of scripture to mean anything they want, a Christian can choose to limit these passages to Christians alone.
But when you realize that Jesus was not speaking to Christians in the cases we discussed, you will understand that morality is for every human being for the betterment of our lives in this world. That is why we have laws and the law.
Moving On
However, simply trying to "be good" isn't the whole story.
Do we do the wrong things? Yes. Should we do the wrong things? No. The Apostle John said that every wrongdoing is a sin. And we can see that every sin has its consequence, and we experience them one way or the other regardless of who we are or what we have.
While morality helps us live better lives here, it doesn't make us perfect. When it comes to justification before God, we all have fallen short of it by our wrongdoings. But we must trust in God and rest through faith in the finished works of Christ. Here's an article you should consider reading: Saved By Grace Through Faith.
In conclusion, for believers, let me leave you with what John said in 1 John 2:1–2 NKJV:
“My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.
And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world.”
Focus on doing what is right before God and man, being good, and loving one another. It will make life on Earth better, at least for the people we come in contact with.
Also, remember to forgive others like Jesus did to those two, without them necessarily asking for forgiveness. You will have peace of mind.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
What does “Go and Sin No More” mean in the Bible?
When Jesus said "go and sin no more" in John 8:11, He was speaking to a woman caught in adultery. Contextually, He was giving her permission to leave (depart) while instructing her to stop the specific sinful lifestyle that brought her into that dangerous situation. It was a call to leave her past behind and live a better, moral life, rather than a demand for instant, flawless perfection.
Where is the verse “Go and Sin No More” found?
The full phrase "go and sin no more" is found in John 8:11, during the story of the woman caught in adultery. However, the phrase "sin no more" also appears in John 5:14, where Jesus heals a man at the Pool of Bethesda and warns him that continuing in sin could lead to worse consequences.
Did Jesus condemn the woman caught in adultery?
No, He did not. In fact, Jesus explicitly told her, "Neither do I condemn you." While the Law of Moses called for her to be stoned, Jesus silenced her accusers by challenging their own consciences. He offered her grace and a second chance instead of condemnation.
Is "Sin No More" a command or just advice?
It can be seen as both. In the case of the woman (John 8), it was a liberating command to walk away from her accusers and her old life. In the case of the man at the pool (John 5), it served as a serious warning (or advice) that his choices had consequences. Jesus was guiding them toward a life that was safe and morally sound.
What is the difference between John 5:14 and John 8:11?
The main difference lies in the context. In John 8:11, Jesus rescues a woman from accusers and tells her to "go" (leave the scene) and sin no more. In John 5:14, Jesus finds a man He had already healed and warns him to "sin no more" to avoid a worse infirmity. One emphasizes freedom from condemnation, while the other emphasizes the consequences of one's actions.
